Dear SJ.:
>
> You wrote:
> Hi!
>
> I am 15 years old and consider myself to be an amateur grammarian. Ever
> since I learned the rule, ‘Don’t end a sentence with a preposition,’ I
> have found it rather puzzling. If the diagram works out, and there is no
> true grammatical fallacy in writing this sentence, what is the big deal?
>
> I believe I have discovered a grammatical proof that shows that there is
> at least one case where the rules of grammar not only allow, but DICTATE,
> that the sentence end in a preposition. In short, if an interrogative
> sentence has the questioning portion as the object of a prepositional
> phrase, then when the sentence is transferred to the interrogative mood it
> must end in a preposition. For example, “Who are you speaking to?”
>
> Regardless of whether you agree or disagree with me, I would appreciate
> any feedback you might have, and would you please give me the name and/or
> email address of a grammatical institute or association with which I could
> pose the same question?
>
> Thank you to an excruciating degree,
>
> S
>
> (Oh, and, in case you’re wondering, my peers do think that I’m at least a
> little bit weird)
>
We agree (not on your weirdness, but on prepositions). The example you use is common in English. The “rule” came about because all European grammatical terms are based on the terms used in Latin. In Latin the “pre-position” does always come before an object. Some grammarians, especially Englishmen in the 18th and 19th centuries, taught that by definition the preposition always had to come before its object. That may be true in Latin, but that does not mean it has to be true in English. We note that even the King James Bible and Shakespeare end sentences with prepositions.

See our page on this “bogus rule” at https://www.englishplus.com/grammar/00000195.htm .