Dear D P:

You wrote:

We are having a discussion. If we write a business letter and say “Dear Bart”, should we close the letter by signing in blue ink our given first name. (Our standard signature block is used with entire name typed.)
Good question. I guess it would depend somewhat on the relationship you have. Generally, nicknames would be used in memos. However, I do understand that sometimes it is important to personalize the business letter, and that a salutation with a nickname would be appropriate.

How you sign the letter would depend mostly on how the recipient addresses the writer. For example, my boss might address a letter to me as “Dear Jim” but since I always call him “Mr. Brown,” he would sign his full name. However, if we commonly addressed one another as “Bill” and “Jim,” then it would be appropriate for him sign the letter “Bill.”

If the person signing the letter is on a true first-name basis with Bart, then he should sign his first name or nickname. (I have known Barts whose full name is Bart, but I have also known Barts whose name is a nickname for Barton or Bartholomew.) If he is not, or if Bart calls him by a more formal name, then use the standard signature. In most cases, it is a question of formality vs. familiarity.

Having said that, some large corporations or government agencies always have the full signature regardless of the situation unless it is in a memo. If for some reason the letter could be used later in a legal situation, e.g. you are presenting Bart an estimate, then you should also sign your full name to show you mean business.

I hope this helps.

Dear A___:

You wrote:

>>Would you write something about the origin of English language?
>>Did it come from French or German?

The English language has a long history, but basically English is one of the Germanic languages. The Angles were a tribe in what is today Northern Germany who settled on the island of Great Britain. Their country the name England comes from the Angles (“Angle-land”).

Even today 39 of the 40 most common words in English come from the language of the Angles and the Saxons.

However, it is very different from modern German even though it shares many roots with German. This is partly because of pronunciation, but mainly because in 1066 England was conquered by the French-speaking Normans. The Normans brought many French words to English and English became distinctly different from the other Germanic languages. Today about 40% of the words in English have a French origin. It was not until nearly 1400, for example, that the English Parliament government quit using French in its deliberations.

English is a Germanic language historically, but it has been largely influenced by French as well.

I hope this helps.

Dear Mrs. H___:

>>Sentence: “Children have access to toys, resources and equipment which are approriate to their age and development and regularly checked, cleaned, and replaced.”
>>Question: Do I need to put another “are” after “development and”?

That is a style question. It is optional. The question is whether you want a compound verb or a compound predicate adjective. The sentence says the same thing either way.

Dear N___:

You wrote:

>1-With my head spinning, I fell on the bed.
>2-I fell on the bed, with my head spinning.

>Can’t both of the above sentences mean both a and b:

>a-I fell on the bed AND my head was spinning.
>b-I fell on the bed BECAUSE my head was spinning
>
>
Yes. They can mean both “a” and “b.” They clearly mean “a,” but certainly “b” would be implied in most cases.

“B” becomes a question of logic, but in everyday speech the cause-effect relationship would probably be understood though it is not explicitly stated.

In formal writing or in a formal situation like testifying in a lawsuit, you would want to be more direct as in “b.”